“The Fall”? “The Curse”? What Does The Bible Really Say? A “Curse”? A “Fall”?

Edward

Edward O’Hara Why is it that we hear so many using such hyperbole? Is it hyperbole? Or is it Biblical language? Is this language found anywhere in the Bible from which we may conclude anything like this? When we read the Genesis account do we ever see God using this language? Do we see God using “The curse” or “The fall” in connection to what happened to Adam and Eve? Does God say Adam and Eve were cursed? Or that they “fell” from anything? Do any of the writers of the scriptures use these terms to describe what happened to Adam and Eve? Let’s take a look. You may be surprised at what we find. We’ll start with Genesis and then also see what Paul says about this.  But first, let me give you something to consider that will be answered later…

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OUR SPIRITUAL HOUSE… A GLORIOUS MANIFESTATION

Edward O’Hara Sat 2/15/2020 1:48 PM… Paul wrote some incredibly inspiring and comforting words. But, none more so than these; “The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together. I reckon that the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. For the earnest expectation of the creature waiteth for the manifestation of the sons of God. For the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope, Because the creature itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the…

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The Kingdom That Jesus Preached

Edward O’Hara Mon 1/20/2020 2:11 PM Luke 16:16-31 When Jesus said “The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it”, was He saying the Old Testament stopped with John the Baptist and the New Testament started with His preaching? Does this mean that the covenant that God made with Israel through Moses ended with John the Baptist?  But, is that possible? Because doesn’t Heb.9:15-10:9 show that the Old Testament continued for Israel until Christ’s death? And that it was only by the death of Christ the Old Testament ended because that’s when the New Testament came to power? If so, and the scriptures are pretty clear that it is, then what did Jesus mean with His follow up statement when He said: “Since that time the kingdom of God is preached”? The answer…

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